Monday, May 1, 2023

The Problem with a Literal, Pecuniary Atonement

At what point in our lives is the Father's wrath against us propitiated? At what point in our lives are we viewed as righteous in His sight? Most Christians reject eternal justification, the idea that we are justified in His sight before we are even born. I would further argue that we are not justified until we come to faith in Christ. I have wondered, however, whether Owen's view implies that justification happened at the time of Christ's death on the cross. Here is what Owen writes in Death of Death in the Death of Christ (link):
...by death he did deliver us from death, and that actually, so far as that the elect are said to die and rise with him. He did actually, or ipso facto, deliver us from the curse, by being made a curse for us; and the handwriting that was against us, even the whole obligation, was taken out of the way and nailed to his cross. It is true, all for whom he did this do not instantly actually apprehend and perceive it, which is impossible: but yet that hinders not but that they have all the fruits of his death in actual right, though not in actual possession, which last they cannot have until at least it be made known to them. As, if a man pay a ransom for a prisoner detained in a foreign country, the very day of the payment and acceptation of it the prisoner hath right to his liberty, although he cannot enjoy it until such time as tidings of it are brought unto him, and a warrant produced for his delivery.

What Owen says here seems to imply while there might be an epistemic dimension still to come whereby we become aware of the fact that we already are actually justified, the fact is, we are already justified. If I'm being honest and distance myself from the name "John Owen," this statement appears dangerous to me, and I'll be glad for anyone to explain it other than how I currently understand it. This appears similar to the eternal justification position in that it is not at the moment of faith that we are justified in God's sight.

Now, I will note that in the very next chapter later, Owen says (link):
...when [Christ] comes to bestow faith and actually to justify a man, until he hath so done he is not justified.
Therefore, I'm not sure if Owen just doesn't catch the implication of the previous paragraph or if I'm misunderstanding him. But if I am misunderstanding him, so are a lot of people who think his view is a pecuniary view of the atonement.

I believe it is possible he may have changed his position, as I will also note that in a book on The Doctrine of the Trinity, which he wrote twenty-one years after The Death of Death in the Death of Christ, he rejects a purely pecuniary view of the atonement and seems to reverse his position on the matter (link):
Neither does it follow, that, on the supposition of the satisfaction pleaded for, the freedom, pardon, or acquitment of the person originally guilty and liable to punishment must immediately and “ipso facto” ensue. It is not of the nature of every solution or satisfaction, that deliverance must “ipso facto” follow. And the reason of it is, because this satisfaction, by a succedaneous substitution of one to undergo punishment for another, must be founded in a voluntary compact and agreement. For there is required unto it a relaxation of the law, though not as unto the punishment to be inflicted, yet as unto the person to be punished. And it is otherwise in personal guilt than in pecuniary debts. In these, the debt itself is solely intended, the person only obliged with reference whereunto. In the other, the person is firstly and principally under the obligation. And therefore, when a pecuniary debt is paid, by whomsoever it be paid, the obligation of the person himself unto payment ceases “ipso facto.” But in things criminal, the guilty person himself being firstly, immediately, and intentionally under the obligation unto punishment, when there is introduced by compact a vicarious solution, in the substitution of another to suffer, though he suffer the same absolutely which those should have done for whom he suffers, yet, because of the acceptation of his person to suffer, which might have been refused, and could not be admitted without some relaxation of the law, deliverance of the guilty persons cannot ensue “ipso facto,” but by the intervention of the terms fixed on in the covenant or agreement for an admittance of the substitution.

It appears, from what has been spoken, that, in this matter of satisfaction, God is not considered as a creditor, and sin as a debt; and the law as an obligation to the payment of that debt, and the Lord Christ as paying it; — though these notions may have been used by some for the illustration of the whole matter, and that not without countenance from sundry expressions in the Scripture to the same purpose. But God is considered as the infinitely holy and righteous author of the law, and supreme governor of all mankind, according to the tenor and sanction of it. Man is considered as a sinner, a transgressor of that law, and thereby obnoxious and liable to the punishment constituted in it and by it, — answerably unto the justice and holiness of its author. The substitution of Christ was merely voluntary on the part of God, and of himself, undertaking to be a sponsor, to answer for the sins of men by undergoing the punishment due unto them. To this end there was a relaxation of the law as to the persons that were to suffer, though not as to what was to be suffered. Without the former, the substitution mentioned could not have been admitted; and on supposition of the latter, the suffering of Christ could not have had the nature of punishment, properly so called: for punishment relates to the justice and righteousness in government of him that exacts it and inflicts it; and this the justice of God does not but by the law. Nor could the law be any way satisfied or fulfilled by the suffering of Christ, if, antecedently thereunto, its obligation, or power of obliging unto the penalty constituted in its sanction unto sin, was relaxed, dissolved, or dispensed withal. Nor was it agreeable to justice, nor would the nature of the things themselves admit of it, that another punishment should be inflicted on Christ than what we had deserved; nor could our sin be the impulsive cause of his death; nor could we have had any benefit thereby. And this may suffice to be added unto what was spoken before as to the nature of satisfaction, so far as the brevity of the discourse whereunto we are confined will bear, or the use whereunto it is designed does require.
Contrast the above to what Owen says earlier in The Death of Death in the Death of Christ (link):
Satisfaction is a term borrowed from the law, applied properly to things, thence translated and accommodated unto persons; and it is a full compensation of the creditor from the debtor. To whom any thing is due from any man, he is in that regard that man's creditor; and the other is his debtor, upon whom there is an obligation to pay or restore what is so due from him, until he be freed by a lawful breaking of that obligation, by making it null and void; which must be done by yielding satisfaction to what his creditor can require by virtue of that obligation: as, if I owe a man a hundred pounds, I am his debtor, by virtue of the bond wherein I am bound, until some such thing be done as recompenseth him, and moveth him to cancel the bond; which is called satisfaction. Hence, from things real, it was and is translated to things personal. Personal debts are injuries and faults; which when a man hath committed, he is liable to punishment. He that is to inflict that punishment or upon whom it lieth to see that it be done, is, or may be, the creditor; which he must do, unless satisfaction be made. Now, there may be a twofold satisfaction:-- First, By a solution, or paying the very thing that is in the obligation, either by the party himself that is bound, or by some other in his stead: as, if I owe a man twenty pounds, and my friend goeth and payeth it, my creditor is fully satisfied. Secondly, By a solution, or paying of so much, although in another kind, not the same that is in the obligation, which, by the creditor's acceptation, stands in the lieu of it; upon which, also, freedom from the obligation followeth, not necessarily, but by virtue of an act of favour. In the business in hand,--First, the debtor is man; he oweth the ten thousand talents, Matt. 28:24. Secondly, The debt is sin: "Forgive us our debts," Matt. 6:12. Thirdly, That which is required in lieu thereof to make satisfaction for it, is death: "In the day that thou eatest thereof, thou shalt surely die," Gen 2:17; "The wages of sin is death," Rom. 6:23. Fourthly, The obligation whereby the debtor is tied and bound is the law, "Cursed is every one," etc., Gal. 3:10; Deut. 27:26; the justice of God, Rom. 1:32; and the truth of God, Gen. 3:3. Fifthly, The creditor that requireth this of us is God, considered as the party offended, severe Judge, and supreme Lord of all things. Sixthly, That which interveneth to the destruction of the obligation is the ransom paid by Christ: Rom. 3:25, "God set him forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood.
After this, Owen essentially says Christ's death was the solution of "another kind" (since we are not saved by "paying" for our own sins). He continues in the chapter to make the statement I quoted first (see above), that by being made a curse for us on the cross, He "ipso facto" "deliver[ed] us from the curse."

In short, given the contrast between the two quotes written twenty-one years apart, I think Owen changed his mind and rejected the idea that the nature of the atonement is pecuniary, so I don't think the double payment argument works. This is not to say I reject the idea of limited atonement, only that there are better arguments to be made for it. I know several Reformed theologians also rejected the view that the atonement is pecuniary in nature (e.g. Dabney, Hodge), and others have pointed out the relevancy of a rejection of this to the double payment objection (e.g. Crisp). But I'm not sure how many have noted that Owen himself seems to have changed his mind.

9 comments:

Joshua Butcher said...

I’m curious about the relationship between criminal and pecuniary punishment is legal history and theory because I know the relation of property and person were closely associated in common law, such that casuists would argue (spuriously) that an injury to one’s property constituted a dishonor to his person which could justify retaliation by duel. I understand Owen’s distinction, but I’m not convinced that he has it correct (he may, I’m just unsure). Often criminal punishment includes civil penalties that involve economic exchange. The verdict is reached at the same moment and the legal status applied, even though the execution of the penalty may happen at different subsequent times and in different ways.

I’ve found the eternal justification arguments persuasive on the basis of how justification is defined—if it is, with respect to status, a disposition or declaration within the mouth of the judge toward the one under judgment, then it would be eternal on the basis of the Father’s acceptance of the Son’s substitution for the sinners for whom He would make good on the penalty/debt. From the Judge’s view, the parties are justified in respect to the law because of the declaration and the contingency of the Son’s work could only nullify the declaration if it failed—the success is assumed within the judgment.

It has been many, many years since I read the relevant expositors of the view (Gill, Brine, Kuyper, I believe), so I may be getting some details wrong.

Ryan said...

It has been some time since I discussed eternal justification with anyone, but rather than make assumptions about what you mean, may I ask what is your take on this thread?

https://www.puritanboard.com/threads/orthodox-eternal-justification.24942/

Joshua Butcher said...

I agree that one's personal apprehension of justification does not occur until one apprehends it by faith upon regeneration--but that same aspect is true of everything in the decrees of God with respect to the individual's apprehension: everything we know of our salvation, we know by faith.

I also agree that Christ accomplished the work necessary to make our justification good on the cross and in His resurrection--but again, something similar could be said of our election, for how could our election in Christ be considered fulfilled until He took up our nature and brought it from death into life, from Adam into Himself?

The Spurgeon quote seems to get at a bit of what Gill is after: what kind of acts are election, adoption, and justification? If there are essentially forensic categories, determined upon the will or declaration of the judge, then their determination within the will and declaration of the judge constitutes their reality, which then must be completed and realized in their execution.

If, however, something metaphysical obtains to the definition (rather than the consequences of, the outworking of) of election, adoption, and justification (or any one of them), then their determination depends upon the execution of the terms by the agent, and the apprehension in the recipient having been realized.

I think that I'm communicating the essential distinctions here.

Ryan said...

I agree, of course, that justification is forensic: it is a declaration. But God makes many declarations contingent on the occurrence of temporal events (e.g. 2 Kings 22:18-19). God declared His covenant to Israel on Mount Sinai. These declarations were not eternal; rather, they are declarations made as a result of God's eternal decree. They were made in temporally conditional settings. Yes, those settings were decreed by God, but that no more makes the declarations themselves eternal any more than it makes me (whose existence was also decreed by God) eternal.

We are not born adopted sons but as slaves; we are given the right to become [adopted] sons of God by faith (John 1:12-13, 8:32, 12:36, Galatians 3-4). We were dead and by nature children of wrath until made alive (Ephesians 2). We were alienated and are now reconciled by faith in Christ in order to present us holy and blameless and above reproach before him (Colossians 1). We were enemies and are now justified by his blood. Romans 8:29-30, Titus 3:4-7, etc. further outline justification as having occurred within the ordo salutis after events which are experienced by the believer (calling, regeneration) - that is, the declaration occurs in time.

Condemnation is also forensic, yet condemnation is a declaration that is likewise conditioned: upon sin. God did not eternally condemn Satan such that Satan's first sin merely made him aware of his condemned status; similarly, we are not eternally justified such that our faith merely makes us aware of our justified status. To be justified by faith is just that - "declared righteous" by faith, not "made aware of an eternal declaration" by faith. The emphasis of the biblical authors with respect to the relationship between justification and faith is not one of mere, epistemic import, as if elect unbelievers are simply unaware that they have already been declared righteous in Christ until they come to faith. I agree with A. W. Pink: "Scripture knows no such thing as a justified unbeliever." I see many problems with the idea that we are eternally adopted or eternally justified.

That is, justification and adoption cannot be conflated with election. Election just means choice, and the choice of God to which we are referring when we speak of election in the context of the ordo salutis was not a choice made in time. Yes, God's choice was that a specified end should result, and the realization of that end obviously requires specified means and temporal events to occur. But the choice itself is a distinct, unconditioned, atemporal act of will. Election itself is "fulfilled" in the very act of God's choice - being synonymous with it - even if that end for which we are elect is not yet fulfilled.

If I am misunderstanding you, please let me know.

Ryan said...

"Can divine justice be disposed favorably toward those who stand condemned, or only toward those whose record is justified in His sight?"

In the face of the Scriptural evidence, the burden of proof would be on the one would argue otherwise.

Also, Christ bore the wrath of the Father, yet the Father is ever disposed to love Him as His Son. Analogously, elect unbelievers were sons of disobedience who were condemned and under divine wrath (Ephesians 5:6-8), yet all the while, the Father worked all things together for their good. In short, the Father's disposition towards His elect and any declaration He makes that they are righteous are distinct.

"How is that God can forebear with sins and be just, except that He considers them justified according to His eternal declaration, which remains to be executed in the work of Christ on the cross and the reception by faith of the gift that comes by His grace?"

I believe I understand the spirit of the question, and it is fair. But I might as well ask you how is it that you think God can be just by mere consideration of an unbelieving sinner as justified.

Now, I don't deny a proleptic dimension in our salvation. That is part and parcel of an already-not theology. But types, promises, and sacrifices were still necessary - as well as faith in the substance of what such things revealed - for justification.

A further question also needs to be asked: whose sins did God pass over in forbearance? Paul does not say God passed over the sins of unbelievers. God is the just and justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. Elsewhere, he says that we have believed in Christ Jesus in order to be justified by faith in Christ (Galatians 2:16). The declaration is a result of faith, not antecedent to it.

Cutting to the chase:

"The question then becomes, can an individual who is unjustified be united to the righteous and holy Son of God?"

Can one who has not the Spirit of Christ belong to the Him (Romans 8:9-11)? I think Scripture depicts union with Christ as occurring in time (Romans 6, Ephesians 4, Hebrews 4, etc.) just as it does with justification.

"I saw justification as God's eternal regard for the elect..."

Again, I think this conflates God's disposition towards the elect with God's declaration of righteousness.

I need to think on the following further, but I also suspect one possible motivation for eternal justification is a conflation of the mode of God's knowledge (timeless) with the objects of God's knowledge (propositions corresponding to temporal events and people).

"The temporal language surrounding justification by faith I've understood similarly to the way justification by works has been understood--it is a vindication to the individual and the world of the reality that obtains."

I am still somewhat struggling to understand how you would explain what the temporal language surrounding justification by faith means. For example, Paul says, "we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ.” I would translate that as, "we also have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be [declared righteous] by faith in Christ.” Would you fill in the brackets with something else? Note that Paul's concern is how one is justified before God (Galatians 3:11) or in His sight (Romans 3:21).

Further, can you clarify what you mean by "the reality that obtains" as well as whether said reality occurs in time or is timeless?

A few more assorted questions I couldn't think to tie into any of the above:

Do you think that God ever imputed sin to Adam (or, for that matter, to any of the elect)? If so, do you think the judgment following his (or their) trespass[es] brought condemnation?

Can you cite one passage which speaks of justification as an eternal declaration of God?

Ryan said...

I had a thought to look up whether our old friend Ron ever said anything on eternal justification. Post 130 seems to suggest he understands the matter as I do:

https://greenbaggins.wordpress.com/2008/07/01/friendly-response-to-scott-clark/

Joshua Butcher said...

Ryan,

Forgive me for not responding sooner. I took a trip out of town and just returned last night. I need to chew on what you've said, and perhaps a long-standing error I've held will be corrected. If not, then I'll come back with something substantive for your consideration.

Ryan said...

Take your time, there's no rush. Incidentally, this conversation has led me to an awareness of an intramural Reformed debate on the meaning of union with Christ that happened back in the 2010s between Westminster East and West, so I'm happy you commented.

Ken Hamrick said...

Excellent article. If God did not impute Adam’s sin to Adam, there would be no Adamic sin to impute to us. Did God impute Jesus’ righteousness to Jesus? Same thing.