6) Lastly, I'll examine several of what Fernandes considers to be remaining weaknesses of Clark's "Dogmatic" presuppositionalism that have not yet been covered (largely ignoring whether Fernandes is correct about whether or how consistent Clark was in holding these views over time).
Weakness #1: "His denial of the basic reliability of sense perception." Again, Fernandes ought to have mentioned and interacted with Clark's affirmation of occasionalism and reasons for rejecting sense perception as a means of knowledge in this context.
At the same time, I myself tend to side with Fernandez that eyewitness testimony, for example, is given biblical credence by which one can, in a sense other than that in which I think Clark was interested (i.e. a more strict, internalist-infallibilist variety), be said to "know" what he sees.
Weakness #2: "His denial of Thomistic first principles." In this paragraph, Fernandes refers to the idea of principles which cannot be denied without absurdity much in the same way Mr. Lazar, in a different book, refers to what he calls performative contradictions. Fernandes asserts one cannot deny the principle of "causality" ("every effect has an adequate cause") or "finality" without contradiction, citing Aristotle and Aquinas as proponents of this view.
I also don't understand in what sense these concepts and their alleged undeniability would "deal Clark's entire system a lethal blow" or how "This would eliminate presuppositional apologetics as the only way for a Christian to defend his faith." As we saw above in regards to archaeological evidence, Clark was open to use of such so long as it was situated in an appropriate context - evidence used by a presuppositionalist and as a reductio ad absurdem.
Supposing, then, that causality and finality - whatever those mean - are "undeniable" after all (and one would wish Fernandes elaborated on this, since he later says "If one accepts the principle of causality..." as if one could deny it after all), all this would mean is that they, like logic, must be situated in the context of the axiom of revelation.
Weakness #3: "He gives no credit to probability arguments." In this section, Fernandes says that, like those first principles of non-Christian philosophies, "Clark's own first principles are also not based on certainty; they too must be presupposed." Here, it sounds as if Fernandes regards a first principle as something one merely hypothesizes could be true. This is not how Clark regarded first principles:
Nothing in Paul suggests that the word of “cooperative
investigation” (1:20) is more certain or reliable than the wisdom of God. Is it
not strange that for any evangelical, for whom sola Scriptura is the formal principle of theology, should try to
base the truth of Scripture on the conclusions of Dr. Albright and Miss Kenyon?
For Paul revelation is self-authenticating. Athens, Oxford, and American
universities have nothing in common with Jerusalem. (First Corinthians, 1991, pg. 58)
See other quotes already mentioned in this post, such as "to hold that the Bible may be false is obviously inconsistent with verbal revelation." Divine revelation, as Clark's epistemic axiom, was his foundation for knowledge and itself could be known. Does Fernandes think that we cannot be certain the Bible is God's word?
So then, Clark does treat his first principle differently than the first principles of others... precisely because those are not his own first principle and, therefore, must be judged as false by his own. Others may disagree with Clark, but this is not epistemically relevant.
Now, it may be relevant in the context of apologetics, wherein one person attempts to persuade another. In such a situation, stating the truth and praying God convicts the other person is one method of approach, as Clark sometimes mentions. It is also legitimate, as Clark also mentions, to examine the other person's worldview itself for internal consistency and, again, to pray God uses that as a means by which the other person is convicted of the truth. But in no case, as I understand it, is Clark allowing that the Bible may not be God's word, is not self-authenticating, or may not be true.
This also dispenses of Fernandes's later insinuation that Clark could not have refuted Islam, given his philosophy. That Clark may not have specifically demonstrated internal consistencies of Islamists (or Hare Krishnas, Satanists, etc.), for example, does not mean he could not have done so.
Apologetically, then, there are multiple legitimate choices one can make in a given scenario. Presenting a Muslim with the gospel and praying for God to convert him is as much a defense of one's faith as is a reductio ad absurdem, even if we allow that doing both is sometimes (or even often) wise. On the other hand, 1 Peter 3:15 does not mean we have to answer the questions of interlocutors ad infinitum. At some point, we can only pray over a matter and leave the rest in God's hands.
Finally, regarding probability, since Fernandes does not explain what he means by the term or how something is established as "probable" or "improbable," here is one sample (among many from which I could have chosen) of what Clark has to say on this subject:
The skeptics wish to act on what is probable; but if “probable” means
only what seems good to a person at the moment, a man might commit the worst
crime without blame, provided he thought it was probably good. But probability
may mean something more. It may mean “approximating the truth.” The skeptics
call propositions false, doubtful, probable, and plausible.
Their basic principle, however, does not in consistency permit them to use any
of these terms. A false proposition
is one opposite to the truth. How then can one say that a proposition is false,
unless one knows the truth? A doubtful
proposition is one that might possibly be true; a probable or plausible
proposition resembles or approximates the truth. But it is impossible to apply
these terms without knowing the truth by which they are determined. One might
well ask, Is it true that a foredoomed search for truth is wisdom? The skeptic
would have to reply that he did not know. Is it probable that such a search is
wisdom? Or with respect to everyday living, is it probable or doubtful that
eating lunch today is wise? Again the skeptic could not know. A theory of
probability must itself be based on truth, for if the method of determining the
probable wisdom of eating lunch is false, the conclusion that it is safe to eat
lunch could not be known to be probable. Without the possession of the truth,
therefore, it is impossible to act rationally even in the most ordinary
situations. (Thales to Dewey, 2000, pg. 178-179)
Weakness #4: "His proposed solution to the problem of evil." Fernandes adds, "Since Clark denied human free will (man could not choose to do otherwise), Clark made God the ultimate cause of evil... A free will theodicy... is a much more plausible solution to the problem of evil than the solution Clark proposed" (emphasis mine).
The above paragraph by Clark from Thales to Dewey seems to serve as an appropriate response to this criticism. Perhaps Fernandes's free will theodicy merely "seems good to [him] at the moment." It is hard to tell, because Fernandes doesn't given any reason for thinking his solution is more "plausible" than Clark's. Clark himself, by way of contrast, provided reasons for his theodicy. One example:
If man has free will, and things can be different, God
cannot be omniscient. Some Arminians have admitted this and have denied
omniscience, but this puts them obviously at offs with Biblical Christianity.
There is also another difficulty. If the Arminian or Romanist wishes to retain
divine omniscience and at the same time assert that foreknowledge has no causal
efficacy, he is put to it to explain how the collision was made a certain
hundred years, an eternity, before the drivers were born. If God did not arrange
the universe this way, who did? (Christian Philosophy, 2004, pgs. 254-255)
One might quibble with the semantics of Clark's use of "free will" vs. "free agency," but his reasoning itself, given his understanding of the terms in question (i.e. for Clark, "free will" = "libertarian free will"), is sound. Clark was, properly understood, a compatibilist: while a theological determinist, he nevertheless believed "man is still a “free agent” for that merely means, as Hodge says, that
man has the power to make a decision" (Essays on Ethics and
Politics, 1992, pgs. 47-48). Clark believed man is responsible for his decisions he makes, decisions which were determined by God. Responsibility does not presuppose libertarian free will, and one must muster more than an appeal to "plausibility" to persuade an unconvinced reader to the contrary.
A stronger argument against Clark in regard to ethics, by the way, might have been to highlight Clark's seeming ethical voluntarism. Clark very strongly argued that whatever God "does is just, for this very reason,
because He does it." He bit a particular end of the bullet of Euthyphro's dilemma and, it seems, was happy to do so.
In fact, in order to be consistent, one might argue that Clark must have also held to alethic voluntarism. There is actually some evidence this might have - at some point - been the case: Clark once said, in reference to Hebrews 6, that "Truth is defined in terms of God’s pronouncements" (link). Does this mean that Clark thought God freely willed His own self-knowledge? Could He have made a different "pronouncement"? If so, are there undesirable metaphysical implications that could be drawn from this? If not, why not?
Such would seem to have a corresponding bearing on ethical voluntarism. There is exploration of Clark's thought that can be had along these lines, but such would require a thorough understanding of whether or how Clark's own views changed over the course of his life. I myself have a few thoughts on all of this but will leave them for another time.
Weakness #5: "He does not allow for the use of secular material during evangelism." This criticism stems from an particular understanding of Clark's statement that "in evangelistic work there can be no appeal to secular, non-Christian material." What Clark means, however (or at least, so I would argue), is that the system, worldview, or first principle of the non-Christian and that of the Christian do not (or should not) overlap. How is this relevant, and is this even the case?
To answer the latter question first, in the same context in which he makes the above statement, Clark denies that we should use a "fallacious argument from a non-existent common ground." Did Clark deny that there is any common ground between believer and unbeliever? As we saw earlier, no. Also in the same context, he says that a Muslim and a Christian may hold a common proposition, but it is not "logically common," for there are "two systems" at play.
In other words, I think Clark is opposing an evangelistic position on which we would appeal to a false system, worldview, or first principle - "a non-existent common ground." If we trace back agreement on a proposition far enough, we will find that we do (or should, since our system, worldview, and first principles should be different) believe said proposition for different reasons than does a Muslim or a secularist - the proposition is not "logically common" or, again, it should not be, for we should not be appealing to secular, non-Christian "material" (read: systems, worldviews, or first principles).
Thus, what do we do in such a case? Once the genus of our beliefs have been located, how is it that the Muslim or secularist can convert? Can the evangelist argue him into the kingdom? No. No amount of apologetic effort, of itself, can convert unbelievers. Even though we water, the believer must pray that God causes growth (1 Corinthians 3). To change one's system, worldview, or first principle ultimately takes an act of God. While this is not to diminish our role in presenting the gospel and providing the opportunity for the Spirit to work such a change, our role is an insufficient condition to that end.
A separate point: one might also point out, in reply to this alleged "weakness" of Clark's philosophy, that Clark appealed to secular "material" (in a certain sense) all the time. Why, he does it in the very book (Three Types of Religious Philosophy) from which Fernandes found the quote with which he took issue!
To the extent that one views Clark's book as an apologetic work, as Fernandes apparently does, how does he interpret Clark's mention of Brand Blanshard, a "brilliant, non-theological philosopher" whose work to which Clark makes "appeal" as he argues against empiricism (Christian Philosophy, 2004, pgs. 58-63)? Does Fernandes think Clark unintentionally contradicts himself in the same book? I think the alternative interpretation provided above is more "plausible."
Weakness #6: "His attacks on traditional apologetics." In some respects, I sympathize with Fernandes insofar as I do see a way in which one can utilize "classical apologetics" even as a Scripturalist. As just mentioned above, Clark is correct that given two different systems, agreement on the truth of a given proposition must be due to different reasoning. The agreement is a common ground, and one method of apologetics is working backwards to the discovery of the point of disagreement in reasoning whereby one's acceptance of the given proposition is demonstrated to be invalid or unsound. Whose first principle and worldview really stands up under scrutiny? Who is really justified in believing the proposition in question? This is a fine method of procedure.
Instead of this, though, picture again two people who agree on a given proposition. They may not only work backwards. Although this is, in my experience, how presuppositionalists - especially those who admire Clark - tend to operate, an apologist can also work forwards, taking agreement in a proposition as a starting point in a given conversation by which he can show where a belief ought to lead.
Clark said as much when he spoke of archaeology - he might as well have applied that to teleology, cosmology, contingency, etc. I could be wrong on this, but I do get the sense that Fernandes is right that Clark was, later in his life, skeptical of "traditional" arguments for God's existence. I think that is due, in part, to the unwillingness of some (e.g. Van Til) to explicitly outline said arguments to Clark's satisfaction. Perhaps, though, Fernandes is right in that Clark was not immune to misrepresenting others (like Augustine or Aquinas). I'm no historical theologian, so I will leave this criticism aside.
I do, however, find myself agreeing with Clark insofar as a certain understanding of divine simplicity - like that of Aquinas - would seem to prevent the possibility of our knowledge ever being identical with God's. It is not clear, from Fernandes's exposition, whether he thinks Aquinas believed that our knowledge of a given proposition is the same as God's knowledge of the same proposition. If God is identical with what He knows (Aquinas's position?), I don't see how this could be the case.
Nonetheless, while in some respects Clark's philosophy is capable of improvement - as is anyone's, for no one but God is omniscient - I do hope that this post illustrates that many people need to better understand his philosophy before they attempt to improve it.