The philosophy of time is a very complex subject. I've put further study of it on hold since I started preparing for a few essay contests on Ayn Rand's philosophy, but a friend recently asked me some questions about it, and I think the following summary I provided is a good indication of where I stand.
While I'm still open to the idea that God is not timeless, the primary problem I have with it is that it seems to be incompatible with even a weak understanding of divine immutability, a doctrine I think is Scripturally supported.
If God is temporal, then an A-series theory of time - which I will explain shortly - is true, and His knowledge literally changes. For example, the proposition "x will occur" would be true until x occurs in time, after which it would be false - so God would know "x will occur" at one point in time but not another. If God's knowledge changes, God changes.
I've tried to construct an argument that God could not be omniscient unless He is timeless, but to be honest, I haven't thought of one which holds. Of course, the meaning of "omniscience" would have to be qualified if God is temporal - it would have to mean something like "knowledge of all propositions which are now true" rather than simply "knowledge of all true propositions[, each of which are unchangingly true]" - but so long as one accepts determinism, God could control under what conditions His knowledge changes.
That's one reason I didn't really like the TF article on time. Parkinson didn't discuss an A-series vs. a B-series view of time, eternal creation, the meaning of omniscience, etc. The discussion is more complicated than "if God's knowledge changes then God is not omniscient," for why couldn't it be the case that God's knowledge changes in accordance with divinely predetermined changes?
Parkinson also doesn't seem to realize omnitemporality traditionally refers to the view that God has an infinitely extended past and future, or at least that He is at all times (contrary to atemporality). He can define omnitemporality in a certain way to make it compatible with Calvinism if he likes, but to me it seems like trying to define free will similarly - it's more likely to confuse than help.
Anyways, for "now," the best argument for divine timelessness I can think of is the argument that it follows from explicit Scriptural testimony of divine immutability. There do appear to be good philosophical arguments against an A-series view of time, however (e.g. McTaggart's paradox), which could also be used as arguments for divine timelessness. I haven't studied those enough to cite them as support for divine timelessness, though.
As for a defense of divine timelessness from counter-arguments, some language used to describe God is anthropomorphic, figures of speech not literally true. This includes words such as "past," "present," "now," and "future." Temporal events are not literally related this way. The A-series view of time says they are and that there is an objective "now." A simple way of thinking about it is to say that the A-series view of time regards some language as irreducibly tensed. So, for instance, a proposition like "I am writing this post now" cannot be reduced to "I write this sentence at 10:51 pm, June 16, 2012." Both may be true, A-series theorists say, but what they each mean is different.
A B-theory view of time, on the other hand, believes events are related by means other than tensed language. Or, at least, any tensed sentence expresses a tenseless meaning (hence, tensed language is non-literal). So in place of words like "past," "present," "now," ""future," yesterday," "today," "tomorrow," "was," will," "did," "had," etc., B-series theorists substitute words like "earlier than," "simultaneous with," and "later than." These substitutes are not tensed phrases. "I write this sentence simultaneous with Jodie driving a car, you sleeping, etc." is not tensed. "I write this sentence later than my reading of your post" is not tensed. No time has a privileged status of "now" or "present" on a B-series view of time. It rather relates events in the direction of logical causation. An event is earlier than another because the earlier event causes the latter event. Events may be caused by other events without its being necessary that they could have been, at some point, modified by the word "now."
If God is timeless and omniscient, a B-series view of time must be true. Otherwise, propositions describing events would be tensed, God would have to know those propositions, and God's knowledge of tensed propositions would necessitate and A-series view of time. This would lead to divine mutability, as shown earlier, which I find problematic.
How does a B-series view of time square with creation? Paul Helm theorizes an "eternal creation." To be eternal is simply to be atemporal or timeless. What does this mean? Well, A and B-series views of time define time in terms of the tensed or tenseless relations events possess (e.g. past/present/future vs. earlier/simultaneous/later). So the point is that God does not acquire [new] relations if He is timeless. What relation[s] God has to the universe, then, must be timeless - that is, on the B-series view of time, these relations cannot be earlier than, simultaneous with, or later than any other events.
Hence, as Helm puts it, God does not will "in" time but rather "with" time; He eternally or timelessly decrees {event A at time t1, B at t2, etc.}. He does not eternally decree {to will event A at time t1, to will B at t2, etc.}. God's will is eternal - it does not occur in time. So the whole temporal order is timeless, though the events in this order are temporal because of their tenseless yet temporal relations with each other (earlier/simultaneous/later).
In my own words, I think of the whole temporal order - the entire B-series - as a set: {A, B, C...}. A is the earliest event (or events) within this order, B is the next, and so on. A causes B, B causes C, and so on. While the entire set is eternally or timelessly created - hence God stands in static relationship to it and the events of the set, none of which possesses the tensed distinction of being "the present" - the set itself is not earlier/simultaneous/later than any other event, for there is no other event to which the creation of the temporal order could stand in [temporal] relation. However, A, B, C, etc. do stand in relation to each other in such a way, which is why we can say such events occur in time. They are earlier/simultaneous/later with respect to each other.
Thus, since there is no earlier event, the creation of the temporal order (the entire B-series set of events) is eternal. The entire created order is metaphysically dependent upon God's will, however (by definition, since created), so that creation would be eternal does not empty the word of its meaning.
If anyone is finding this difficult to understand, don't feel bad. I've read Craig's Time and Eternity (which was very helpful in introducing the material and written by an A-series theorist) Helm's Eternal God, and God and Time: Four Views, and I still have a hard time keeping it straight. I would recommend reading these books. Helm's summary view presented in God and Time: Four Views is viewable on googlebooks. It seems that he updated his views in Eternal God, though (e.g. possible worlds).

13 comments:
"... the proposition "x will occur" would be true until x occurs in time, after which it would be false ..."
That depends if "x" is something general or specific. I think all events are specific because all events have their unique attributes that separate them from others.
God knows the time of this event's occurrence, and thus his knowledge of it won't change after it happens, since he always knew "x" would happen at "such a time" and not earlier or later. Do you hear what I'm saying?
It sounds like you're saying that a tensed sentence and a tenseless sentence express the same meaning. But that isn't true on an A-series view of time: "x will occur on June 18, 2012" cannot be reduced to "x occurs on June 18, 2012."
Yup, you're right - the future tense has a different meaning than the present tense. "x occurs" is synonymous with "x is occurring."
What do you mean by "tenseless sentence"?
"x occurs on June 18, 2012" is not a sentence in the present tense, it's tenseless. It can be said at any time and be true, and can be said by an atemporal being and be true. It is a sentence which doesn't relate the event described (x's occurrence) to an alleged past, present, or future. So it's tenseless.
So this is what a B-series theorist would say a timeless God knows. God, if timeless, can't know a tensed sentence, because such a sentence would relate an event to the past, present, or future. That would mean God knows what is the past, present, or future, which means God must be in time or temporal. Why?
Take an example of the present tense. For instance, it would have been the present tense if I had said "x occurs now, and objectively, it is now June 18, 2012" or "x is presently occurring, and objectively, it is presently June 18, 2012." God can't know either or these if God is timeless. God can't eternally know "x objectively occurs now, on June 18" because it is not the case that "now" always refers to "June 18." When the present becomes June 19, then June 18 will be in the past, right? So God couldn't know on June 19 that "x objectively occurs now, on June 18." That would be false on June 19. Rather, His knowledge would change to affirm "x objectively occurred in the past, on June 18, because it is now June 19."
If God knows tensed propositions - i.e. if tensed propositions are true - then God is not timeless. In other words, God, to be timeless, must know tenseless propositions. Furthermore, if God is omniscient, either tensed sentences cannot be true or they can be reduced to tenseless sentences (in meaning). So an A-series view of time, which draws a distinction between the past, present, and future, must be false if God is timeless. A B-series view of time, in which true propositions are tenseless, must be true if God is timeless.
"God can't eternally know "x objectively occurs now, on June 18" because it is not the case that "now" always refers to "June 18.""
But the word "now" there is defined by "June 18."
"But the word "now" there is defined by "June 18.""
The point is that on June 19, God could no longer know "x objectively occurs now, on June 18." That means God's knowledge would change.
Ryan,
This seems to me to parallel the question of whether God strictly transcends space or is present within space at every point. Have I oversimplified, or does this question of tensed propositions translate into the question fixed geographical proposition? "Past," "now," and "future" are like "west," "here," and "east." Is God present in my house in Ohio, in order to know the proposition, "Indiana is west of here"? --Or, does God only know that "Indiana is west of Ohio"?
A friend of mine argues that God is not present within creation, but only transcends it, such that every point in creation is present before God, but God is present in no point. The table is in God's presence, but God is not in the table. I agree that God transcends creation, but argue that God is also in the table (and in every point of space and particle of matter). This seems to me to parallel the debate about God and time.
If God is present at every point within His creation, then His nature requires that He is wholly present at each point, rather than being "spread thin," so to speak. God would be as much present at any single point as He is at all points together. Like His omniscience, His attention on any single point of His creation would be just as focused as if His attention were nowhere else. So He is as much present at any single point as if He were present nowhere else. My point is that God's attention, perception and mind are fully engaged at the microcosmic level at each point, as well as the transcendent macrocosmic level. While the propositions, "Indiana is west of here," and "Indiana is east of here," would be contradictory at the macro level, it would not be contradictory at the micro level. Rather, it would be true depending on what geographical point the Mind is present. God in Dayton, Ohio can truly know and declare, "Indiana is west of here;" while God in Indianapolis can truly know and declare, "Ohio is east of here." For God on the westbound bus, the former proposition would be true until the state line is crossed, after which it would be false and the latter would then be true.
Only those propositions that depend on an unchanging frame of reference can be expected to be unchanging in God's knowledge. Those propositions that depend on a variable or changing frame of reference necessarily change in the knowledge of God, because it is not the propositions in God's knowledge that are unchangeable but the truthfulness and accuracy of those propositions even at the microcosmic level with a variable frame of reference.
Does that make any sense?
It seems to me that a change in frame of reference does not cause contradictions, since every proposition presupposes its own frame of reference. It also seems to me that it is not the information in God's knowledge that must remain the same, but the fidelity to any and all frames of reference. Any frame of reference that changes is outside of God, so that it is not God that has changed; but God's unchanging fidelity to frames of reference necessitate the change of the information that constitutes the proposition within that frame of reference.
God isn't physical, so what it means for God to be "present" at some point in space would not be the same as it would be for me to say that I am present at some point in space. But this is a trivial point in that it doesn't concern whether or not God can be omniscient.
The important analogy between space and time in this context is that in the same sense God doesn't need to be where I am in space to know what it means when I utter the proposition "I am here" (since the indexical "here" can be reduced to "location x"), God also doesn't need to be when I am in time to know what it means when I utter the proposition "I am now [doing y]" (since the indexical "now," meant properly - i.e. according to its B-series meaning rather than its A-series meaning - can be reduced to "at date and/or time z").
Ryan,
Thank you for replying. Please bear with me if I'm not understanding this. But I still have some things for you to consider.
Would you agree that the difficulty here is in trying to use a sequential mind to understand God's non-sequential mind?
One of the things that I think you are doing is applying our single-focus thinking to God's omni-focus thinking. I don't think that God views the set of temporal events from a distance, such that He uses a single focus to take it all in. With such a single focus, He would have to choose which single perspective (or frame of reference) to use, and could not use the contradictory "tensed sentences."
But what if God views the set of events not from a single-perspective distance, but "up close?" What if God interfaces with the temporal order in the closest imaginable way, such that He uses omni-foci(?), just as He does spatially? Every person has the eyes of God on him just as if God were looking at no one else. He is the God who sees just as if He were standing next to you. Why assume that He only sees from the single perspective of some distance sufficient enough to take it all in?
You said, "God doesn't need to be where I am in space to know what it means when I utter the proposition 'I am here' (since the indexical 'here' can be reduced to 'location x')..."
No, He doesn't need to be where I am; but what if He IS here where I am? That changes things. You continued, "...God also doesn't need to be when I am in time to know what it means when I utter the proposition 'I am now [doing y]' (since the indexical 'now,' meant properly - i.e. according to its B-series meaning rather than its A-series meaning - can be reduced to 'at date and/or time z')." What I am suggesting is that God is so closely interfaced with our temporal reality that it is as if HE were here in time with us. Just as He is not limited in spatial focus, but sees all things at all points with equal, "simultaneous" focus, He is not limited in His focus on temporal events, and has equal, "simultaneous" focus on all events just as if He were "in" each moment.
I have more comments to send your way, but I will post the rest on my blog, since the remainder is more related to what you've posted over there.
"He doesn't need to be where I am; but what if He IS here where I am? That changes things."
Given that God has no body, what do you mean?
"Every person has the eyes of God on him just as if God were looking at no one else... I am suggesting is that God is so closely interfaced with our temporal reality that it is as if HE were here in time with us."
By saying "as if," you seem to be implicitly admitting that God can't literally be temporal (physical). But then what is your contention? God can't be timeless and literally know tensed propositions.
"The Kingdom of God is within you."
i.e. Ye are given LIFE, freely!
All discussion above betrays lack of understanding!
Time itself is non-existent! It is a delusion assumed in an attempt to explain change, which is a change of viewpoint, thus changing form in APPARENT time and space.
God, infinite, boundless, formless, does not change!
Life is not bound in time or space, although lifeforms are!
The problem lies in man's dualistic mind splitting subject-object or Deluded self - in illusory world.
God is ONE. Ye are to be at-ONE-d.
Neither self nor world exist of themselves!
Creation is the LETTING of the play go on... Lila, Maya, samsara...
Reality, God, is in ALL of this... let's all of this go on... but nothing is real in itself.
Realization is in God alone, All ONE!
Your discussions are lost in duality, which is the Devil!
meta4site@hotmail.com
Either you're trolling or just an idiot.
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